475 Final

Performance is best described as:

A. the likelihood that behaviors will be repeated without reward.

B. judgments about the adequacy or inadequacy of behavior.

C. behaviors directed toward the organization’s mission.

D. how much an individual enjoys a work activity.

C. behaviors directed toward the organization’s mission.
Which of the following involves making judgments about the adequacy of behavior with respect to certain criteria such as work-group or organizational goals?

A. Reliability

B. Responsiveness

C. Performance

D. Effectiveness

D. Effectiveness
In terms of the underlying causes of performance problems, leaders seem to have the most difficulty recognizing and rectifying:

A. motivation problems.

B. unclear expectations.

C. employee skill deficits.

D. resource shortages.

A. motivation problems.
One limitation of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is that it fails to:

A. consider an individual’s higher order needs.

B. place enough emphasis on an individual’s lower order needs.

C. address the general nature of the various types of basic human needs.

D. make specific predictions as to how individuals will satisfy their needs.

D. make specific predictions as to how individuals will satisfy their needs.
An individual’s tendency to exert effort toward task accomplishment depends partly on the strength of his/her motive to achieve success. This concept is called:

A. problem solving.

B. customer orientation.

C. relationship building.

D. achievement orientation.

D. achievement orientation.
What are the most powerful determinants of task behaviors according to Locke and Latham?

A. Values

B. Goals

C. Abilities

D. Needs

B. Goals
Which of the following would most likely result in consistently higher effort and performance?

A. Assigning goals that are both specific and difficult

B. Having goals that are very difficult to achieve

C. Assigning “do your best” goals

D. Having multiple goals

A. Assigning goals that are both specific and difficult
Which of the following statements about goals is most likely FALSE?

A. Determining just how challenging to make goals creates a dilemma for many leaders.

B. Goal commitment is likely to increase with follower participation in goal setting.

C. Followers exert the greatest effort when goals are accompanied by feedback.

D. Easily attainable goals result in higher levels of effort and performance.

D. Easily attainable goals result in higher levels of effort and performance.
Which of the following most likely occurs when leaders articulate high expectations for followers?

A. Hawthorne effect

B. Pygmalion effect

C. Golem effect

D. Hierarchy effect

B. Pygmalion effect
Which of the following is most likely an example of a non-contingent reward?

A. Performance bonus

B. Annual salary

C. Monthly commission

D. Stock options

B. Annual salary
Which statement best summarizes the components of empowerment as defined by the authors?

A. Leaders delegate leadership and decision making down to the lowest level possible and equip followers with the resources, knowledge, and skills necessary to make good decisions.

B. Leaders articulate a vision and specific goals and hold followers responsible for achieving them.

C. Followers act as entrepreneurs and owners who question rules and make intelligent decisions.

D. Empowerment is a bottom-up approach that focuses on intelligent risk taking, growth, change, trust, and ownership.

A. Leaders delegate leadership and decision making down to the lowest level possible and equip followers with the resources, knowledge, and skills necessary to make good decisions.
Which of the following is NOT a macro psychological component that underlies empowerment?

A. Motivation

B. Influence

C. Learning

D. Stress

B. Influence
Which statement about empowerment and the operant approach is most likely true?

A. The situation is almost always fixed, and followers are the only variables important in the performance equation.

B. By changing the situation, leaders can enhance followers’ motivation, performance, and satisfaction.

C. Restructuring work processes and procedures generally has little effect on follower’s motivational levels.

D. Most followers enjoy the challenge of doing things in new ways and feel immediately empowered.

B. By changing the situation, leaders can enhance followers’ motivation, performance, and satisfaction.
What is the main reason for people staying with organizations?

A. Job evaluations based on 360-feedback

B. Frequent development opportunities

C. Use of pay-for-performance systems

D. Promises of long-term employment

D. Promises of long-term employment
Which of the following assesses the overall degree to which employees are satisfied with their organization and their job?

A. Hygiene factors

B. Facet satisfaction item

C. Global satisfaction item

D. Motivators

C. Global satisfaction item
Which of the following statements is most likely true about affectivity?

A. People with positive affectivity tend to avoid new situations.

B. Researchers have found that negative affectivity is not related to job dissatisfaction.

C. People with a disposition for positive affectivity tend to react optimistically to changes.

D. People with negative affectivity tend to be unhappy with their lives but enjoy their jobs.

C. People with a disposition for positive affectivity tend to react optimistically to changes.
Which of the following statements about affectivity is most likely FALSE?

A. Leadership experiences are affected by the positive or negative affectivity of followers.

B. Research shows a strong link between negative affectivity and low productivity levels.

C. A leader’s own affectivity can strongly influence followers’ morale or satisfaction levels.

D. Leaders can most likely improve job satisfaction by hiring upbeat, optimistic followers.

B. Research shows a strong link between negative affectivity and low productivity levels.
According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor?

A. Recognition

B. Responsibility

C. Supervision

D. Advancement

C. Supervision
Which of the following is one of the motivators described in Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

A. Working conditions

B. The work itself

C. Co-workers

D. Job security

B. The work itself
Which of the following reflects the degree to which people are given information about different reward procedures and are treated with dignity and respect?

A. Decentralization

B. Interactional justice

C. Empowerment

D. Distributive justice

B. Interactional justice
Anything that provides direction, intensity and persistence to behavior is

A. motivation.

B. performance.

C. effectiveness.

D. satisfaction.

A. motivation.
Performance

A. is the likelihood behavior an individual will initiate and continue exhibiting.

B. involves making judgments about the adequacy of behavior with respect to certain criteria such as organizational goals.

C. concerns those behaviors directed toward the organization’s goals resulting from those behaviors.

D. describes choosing a task to engage in establishing the level of effort to put forth on it and determining the degree of persistence in it over time.

C. concerns those behaviors directed toward the organization’s goals resulting from those behaviors.
Job satisfaction is

A. how hard one works.

B. how much one likes a specific kind of job.

C. how well one works.

D. how much one is motivated to work.

B. how much one likes a specific kind of job.
Among the following underlying causes of performance problems, leaders seem to have the most difficulty recognizing and rectifying

A. motivation problems.

B. unclear expectations.

C. skill deficits.

D. resource/equipment shortages.

A. motivation problems.
According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which is the lowest level need?

A. Belongingness needs

B. Esteem needs

C. Physiological needs

D. Security needs

C. Physiological needs
According to the operant approach, which of the following statements would not describe a contingent reward?

A. An insurance salesperson receives their monthly commission check.

B. An employee receives an extra week of vacation time after their fifth year with the company.

C. An employee receives their Holiday bonus checks.

D. All of these describe contingent rewards.

C. An employee receives their Holiday bonus checks.
Which of the following would be an example of a non-contingent reward?

A. An annual performance bonus check.

B. A monthly salary check.

C. A monthly commission check.

D. None of these are non-contingent rewards.

B. A monthly salary check.
Which of the following statements is inaccurate concerning “pay for performance”?

A. These programs offer to pay bonuses or commissions for results obtained.

B. “Pay for performance” generally only applies to sales positions.

C. One of the shortfalls of “pay for performance” systems is that they can be subject to situational factors that are not related to performance.

D. All of these statements are true.

B. “Pay for performance” generally only applies to sales positions.
According to the authors of the text, what are the key components that define empowerment?

A. Leaders delegate leadership and decision making down to the lowest level possible and equip followers with the resources, knowledge, and skills necessary to make good decisions.

B. Leaders articulate a vision and specific goals and hold followers responsible for achieving them.

C. Followers act as entrepreneurs and owners who question rules and make intelligent decisions.

D. Empowerment is a bottom up approach that focuses on intelligent risk taking, growth, change, trust, and ownership.

A. Leaders delegate leadership and decision making down to the lowest level possible and equip followers with the resources, knowledge, and skills necessary to make good decisions.
Which of the following is not one of the macro level psychological components that underlies empowerment?

A. Motivation

B. Fear

C. Learning

D. Stress

B. Fear
Which of the following is one of the micro level psychological components that underlies empowerment?

A. Influence

B. Meaning

C. Self-determination

D. All of these are correct.

D. All of these are correct.
Which of the following would most likely result in consistently higher effort and performance?

A. Goals that are both specific and difficult.

B. Goals that are very difficult to achieve.

C. “Do your best” goals.

D. Having clear goals.

A. Goals that are both specific and difficult.
Leaders who have little faith in their followers’ ability to accomplish a goal are rarely disappointed. This refers to

A. Placebo effect.

B. Pygmalion effect.

C. Golem effect.

D. Hierarchy effect.

C. Golem effect.
Which of the following effects are the result of a leader’s implicit and explicit expectations about goal accomplishment?

A. The Goal-setting Effect

B. The Pygmalion Effect

C. The Self-Serving Bias

D. The High-Expectation Effect

B. The Pygmalion Effect
Which of the following are characteristics of empowered employees?

A. Have high competence.

B. Are self-determined.

C. The Self-Serving Bias.

D. All of these are characteristics of empowered employees.

B. Are self-determined.
Which of the following statements is accurate concerning positive and negative affectivity?

A. People with a disposition for positive affectivity consistently react to changes, events, or situations in a positive manner.

B. Researchers have found that negative affectivity is not related to job dissatisfaction.

C. People with positive affectivity tend to avoid new situations.

D. All of these statements are accurate.

A. People with a disposition for positive affectivity consistently react to changes, events, or situations in a positive manner.
Which of the following statements concerning affectivity from the leader’s perspective is not accurate?

A. Different leadership experiences can result from leading a high percentage of followers having either positive or negative affectivity.

B. Followers with negative affectivity generally have lower levels of productivity.

C. A leader’s own affectivity can strongly influence followers’ morale or satisfaction levels.

D. All of these are accurate statements.

B. Followers with negative affectivity generally have lower levels of productivity.
According to Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory, which of the following are considered hygiene factors?

A. Recognition

B. Responsibility

C. Coworkers

D. Advancement and growth

C. Coworkers
Which of the following is one of the motivators described in Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory?

A. The work itself

B. Pay

C. Coworkers

D. Job security

B. Pay
Any consequence that increases the likelihood that a particular behavior will be repeated is called

A. motivation.

B. punishment.

C. reward.

D. preference.

C. reward.
Which of the following is not a macro psychological component underlying empowerment?

A. Learning

B. Motivation

C. Stress

D. Meaning

D. Meaning
Adopting an effective empowerment program takes

A. motivation, learning and stress.

B. training, trust and time.

C. guidance, influence and support.

D. self-determination, meaning and competence.

B. training, trust and time.
Transformational leadership uses _____ as the fuel to drive followers’ heightened motivational levels.

A. emotion

B. logic

C. reasoning

D. reward

A. emotion
Herzberg labeled the factors that led to satisfaction at work as

A. positive affectivity.

B. hygiene factors.

C. motivators.

D. negative affectivity.

C. motivators.
According to the two-factor theory, which of these is a hygiene factor?

A. Job security

B. Achievement

C. Responsibility

D. Advancement and growth

A. Job security
In comparing teams and group members, which statement is most likely true?

A. Team members can readily identify who is and who is not on the team; identifying members of a group may be more difficult.

B. Group members have common goals; teams may not have the same degree of consensus about goals.

C. Group members often have more differentiated and specialized roles than team members.

D. Task interdependence typically is greater with groups than with teams.

A. Team members can readily identify who is and who is not on the team; identifying members of a group may be more difficult.
The inefficiencies created by more and more people working together is called:

A. groupthink.

B. social loafing.

C. process losses.

D. deindividuation.

C. process losses.
The phenomenon of reduced effort by people when they are not individually accountable for their work is referred to as:

A. process loss.

B. social loafing.

C. group polarization.

D. group storming.

B. social loafing.
_____ refers to any time people increase their level of work due to the presence of others.

A. Social facilitation

B. Additive tasking

C. Social loafing

D. Overbounding

A. Social facilitation
The _____ stage of development of groups is characterized by polite conversation, the gathering of superficial information about fellow members, and low trust.

A. norming

B. storming

C. forming

D. performing

C. forming
The clear emergence of a leader and the development of group norms and cohesiveness are the key indicators of the _____ stage of group development.

A. norming

B. performing

C. forming

D. storming

A. norming
Functional, interdependent roles are characteristic of which stage of group development?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

D. Performing
Which term refers to the set of expected behaviors associated with a particular job or position?

A. Group role

B. Groupthink

C. Social facilitation

D. Punctuated equilibrium

A. Group role
A manager makes the following statement to a subordinate, “I need this report back in five minutes, and it had better be perfect.” Which term best describes this type of role conflict?

BY yeT
A. Interrole conflict

B. Intrasender role conflict

C. Person-role conflict

D. Intersender role conflict

B. Intrasender role conflict
Receiving conflicting information from two or more people about their expectations for your work behavior reflects:

A. intersender role conflict.

B. intrasender role conflict.

C. interrole conflict.

D. person-role conflict.

A. intersender role conflict.
What type of conflict most likely occurs when a store manager encourages a salesperson to mislead customers about the quality of the store’s products if deception is inconsistent with the salesperson’s values and beliefs?

A. Interrole conflict

B. Intrasender role conflict

C. Intersender role conflict

D. Person-role conflict

D. Person-role conflict
Molly, a member of a product development team, is most likely experiencing _____ if she wonders, “Just what am I supposed to be doing?”

A. role ambiguity

B. role conflict

C. role overload

D. role insufficiency

A. role ambiguity
_____ are the informal rules that groups adopt to regulate and regularize group members’ behaviors.

A. Values

B. Norms

C. Ethics

D. Outputs

B. Norms
The sum of forces that attract members to a group, provide resistance to leaving it, and motivate them to be active in it is called:

A. group polarization.

B. social facilitation.

C. group cohesion.

D. punctuated equilibrium.

C. group cohesion.
Which of the following is a possible solution for groupthink?

A. Increasing group cohesiveness and engaging in more overbounding techniques.

B. Isolating the group from outside sources which might bias decision making.

C. Establishing an independent subgroup to make recommendations.

D. Using mindguards to screen negative input from the group.

C. Establishing an independent subgroup to make recommendations.
Which question is most relevant to the task variable of team design?

A. Are there too few or too many team members?

B. Does the team have a meaningful piece of work?

C. Has the team leader established a flexible climate?

D. Does the team have an appropriate amount of diversity?

B. Does the team have a meaningful piece of work?
Which term refers to interactions among team members, such as how they communicate with each other?

A. Punctuated equilibrium

B. Organizational shells

C. Group polarization

D. Group dynamics

D. Group dynamics
For a team to do well, the individuals composing the team must sometimes not maximize their individual effort. This is referred to as:

A. subsystem nonoptimization.

B. limited span of control.

C. organizational process loss.

D. intersender role conflict.

A. subsystem nonoptimization.
At the organizational level, the Team Leadership Model (TLM) suggests that leaders examine the _____ that may be impacting the team.

A. motivations

B. creative skills

C. reward systems

D. interpersonal behaviors

C. reward systems
What is the LEAST likely way that a leader could improve team effectiveness?

A. Putting subtle pressure on dissenting members of the team to ensure concept cohesiveness

B. Designing input-stage variables at the individual, organizational, and team design levels

C. Ensuring that the team has a clear sense of purpose and performance expectations

D. Providing coaching while the team is performing its task

A. Putting subtle pressure on dissenting members of the team to ensure concept cohesiveness
According to the text, a group is defined as “two or more persons who are interacting with one another in such a manner that each person influences and is influenced by each other person”. Which of the following is an aspect of this definition?

A. An individual can only belong to one group.

B. Group members interact with, but do not influence, each other.

C. It includes the concept of the one-way nature of influence between leaders, followers and situation.

D. It incorporates the concept of reciprocal influence between leaders and followers.

D. It incorporates the concept of reciprocal influence between leaders and followers.
One of the disadvantages of highly cohesive group is finding that, people in such groups often become more concerned with striving for unanimity than in objectively appraising different courses of action. This phenomenon is called

A. groupthink.

B. punctuated equilibrium.

C. overbounding.

D. ollieism.

A. groupthink.
Which of the following is a possible solution for groupthink?

A. Increase cohesiveness.

B. Isolate the group from outside sources which might bias decision making.

C. Use independent subgroups to make recommendations.

D. Use mindguards to screen negative information from the group.

C. Use independent subgroups to make recommendations.
“Does the team have a meaningful piece of work, sufficient autonomy to perform it and access to knowledge of its results?” This relates to which of the following variables for a team to work effectively?

A. Authority

B. Task structure

C. Norms

D. Group boundaries

B. Task structure
According to Ginnett’s model of team leadership, groups must grapple with the issues of leadership climate and competence. These fit best within the realm of

A. authority.

B. group boundaries.

C. norms.

D. task structure.

A. authority.
According to Katzenbach and Smith, which of the following may be the most important single step in teamwork?

A. Development

B. Design

C. Dream

D. Dynamics

C. Dream
Which of the following is an authority dynamic?

A. Team task

B. Skills and abilities

C. Values and attitudes

D. Information systems

A. Team task
Education systems relate to

A. authority dynamics.

B. control systems.

C. interpersonal behaviors.

D. group dynamics.

B. control systems.
Geographically dispersed teams are more commonly referred to as

A. self-managed teams.

B. interdependent teams.

C. independent teams.

D. virtual teams.

D. virtual teams.
Goals are most effective when they are:

A. vaguely worded.

B. challenging.

C. general.

D. easy.

B. challenging.
It is most likely important to have specific goals for the purpose of:

A. eliminating competition.

B. encouraging teamwork.

C. measuring progress.

D. delegating tasks.

C. measuring progress.
Which of the following statements about feedback is most likely FALSE?

A. Sometimes supervisors hesitate to use positive feedback because they believe subordinates will view it as insincere.

B. Leaders may give positive feedback infrequently if they believe good performance is expected.

C. Research shows that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback than their leaders think they do.

D. Followers will most likely perform at a higher level if they are given accurate, frequent feedback.

C. Research shows that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback than their leaders think they do.
Which of the following would LEAST likely improve a leader’s feedback skills?

A. Being flexible

B. Being critical

C. Being descriptive

D. Being specific

B. Being critical
Which of the following is most likely a true statement about feedback?

A. Feedback should focus on facts rather than inferences.

B. Overly descriptive feedback is too complex to be useful.

C. Feedback is ineffective if given too soon after the behavior occurs.

D. Providing both positive and negative feedback during one session is contradictory.

A. Feedback should focus on facts rather than inferences.
The first requirement for a team intervention to be successful is:

A. brainstorming a range of positive feedback techniques.

B. raising awareness about how teams really work.

C. providing instrument-based team feedback.

D. practicing behaviors with team role play.

B. raising awareness about how teams really work.
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness?

A. Power

B. Morale

C. Vision

D. Buy-in

C. Vision
According to the Rocket Model, the first step to building high-performing teams is to:

A. identify the constituencies affecting the team.

B. evaluate team and individual goals.

C. build buy-in for the program.

D. establish expected norms.

A. identify the constituencies affecting the team.
Based on the norms component of the Rocket Model, which statement is most likely FALSE?

A. If the team or team leader is not explicit about setting the rules that govern team behavior, norms will simply evolve over time.

B. Norms about how often and how long the team meets should be driven by the team’s purpose and goals.

C. The most important team norms relate to decision making, communication, and accountability.

D. Leaders should address norms before discussing the context or mission components.

D. Leaders should address norms before discussing the context or mission components.
According to the Rocket Model, which of the following would LEAST likely build buy-in?

A. Developing a compelling vision or purpose for the team

B. Involving team members in the rule-setting process

C. Exhibiting a high level of personal consideration

D. Establishing the credibility of the team leader

C. Exhibiting a high level of personal consideration
The power component of the Rocket Model most likely relates to a team’s:

A. leadership style.

B. commitment.

C. accountability.

D. resources.

D. resources.
Teams with high levels of morale most likely:

A. accomplish goals with limited resources.

B. handle interpersonal conflict effectively.

C. require few one-one-one meetings.

D. delegate responsibilities frequently.

B. handle interpersonal conflict effectively.
Which statement about delegation is most likely FALSE?

A. Delegation is a simple way for leaders to free themselves of time-consuming chores.

B. Delegation is an overused management option that frustrates most followers.

C. Delegation increases the number of tasks accomplished by work groups.

D. Delegation gives followers developmental opportunities.

B. Delegation is an overused management option that frustrates most followers.
How does delegation most likely strengthen the organization?

A. By developing valuable customers

B. By utilizing more virtual teams

C. By monitoring quality control

D. By stimulating innovation

D. By stimulating innovation
Which of the following is a common reason that leaders avoid delegation?

A. Subordinates are too busy.

B. The task is too insignificant.

C. The costs are too extensive.

D. Subordinates are too unskilled.

A. Subordinates are too busy.
What is the first step of effective delegation?

A. Establishing a specific timeframe

B. Deciding what activity to hand over

C. Determining the objectives of the task

D. Choosing an individual for the assignment

B. Deciding what activity to hand over
When delegating an assignment, which of the following questions is LEAST relevant to address?

A. How has the task been accomplished in the past?

B. What are the limits of the subordinate’s authority?

C. How does the task relate to industry standards?

D. What sources of help are available?

C. How does the task relate to industry standards?
When giving performance feedback privately to a subordinate, what should a leader most likely emphasize?

A. Positive behaviors and results

B. Developmental opportunities

C. Inadequacies and misbehaviors

D. Necessary changes for the future

A. Positive behaviors and results
What is the first step in the coaching model developed by Peterson and Hicks?

A. Determining what task to assign

B. Creating a long-term development plan

C. Conducting a gaps-of-the GAPS analysis

D. Establishing a relationship based on trust

D. Establishing a relationship based on trust
What should a coach most likely do to help a follower stick to a development plan?

A. Conduct a GAPS analysis

B. Establish long-term objectives

C. Schedule regular reflection sessions

D. Delegate simple and challenging tasks

C. Schedule regular reflection sessions
Having specific goals is closely related to having ___________ goals.

A. quality

B. energizing

C. observable

D. specific

C. observable
Which of the following is a false statement concerning goals?

A. Setting goals guarantee success.

B. Goals are most likely to be achieved if there is commitment to them.

C. Goals should be challenging but attainable.

D. Goals accompanied by feedback reflect higher performance.

A. Setting goals guarantee success.
A person could potentially have good ___________ skills and still have poor feedback skills.

A. communication

B. listening

C. assertiveness

D. all of the above

D. all of the above
Which of the following statements is not accurate concerning feedback?

A. Sometimes supervisors hesitate to use positive feedback because they believe subordinates may see it as politically manipulative, ingratiating, or insincere.

B. Leaders may give positive feedback infrequently if they believe good performance is expected and should not be recognized.

C. Research has shown that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback than their leaders think they do.

D. None of these statements is accurate.

C. Research has shown that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback than their leaders think they do.
Which of the following is a true statement about feedback?

A. It is a good idea to stick to the facts as much as possible.

B. Try not to make feedback too descriptive.

C. Feedback is usually not effective if given soon after the behavior occurs.

D. All of the above statements are true.

A. It is a good idea to stick to the facts as much as possible.
The first requirement for a team intervention to be success is that it involves

A. a range of intervention techniques.

B. raising awareness.

C. instrument-based feedback.

D. a good sense of real-time.

B. raising awareness.
Which of the following statements concerning the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness is accurate?

A. When building a new team, the first thing a leader must do is clarify the team’s purpose and goals, set team performance standards, and ensure that individual team member goals are aligned with the team’s goals.

B. When building a new team, the first thing a leader must do is select the right kind of people.

C. When building a new team, the first thing a leader must do is build buy-in for the program.

D. When building a new team, the first thing a leader must do is establish expected norms.

A. When building a new team, the first thing a leader must do is clarify the team’s purpose and goals, set team performance standards, and ensure that individual team member goals are aligned with the team’s goals.
Which of the following methods was not mentioned as a way to build buy-in for the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness?

A. Develop a compelling team vision or purpose.

B. Involve team members in the goal, standard, and rule-setting process.

C. Leaders exhibit a high level of consideration.

D. The team leader has to have a high level of credibility.

C. Leaders exhibit a high level of consideration.
Which of the following aspects was not mentioned concerning norms for the Rocket Model of Team Effectiveness?

A. If the team or team leader is not explicit about setting the rules that govern team behavior, they will simply evolve over time.

B. The decisions the team makes, the way in which it makes decisions, how often and how long the team meets, should all be driven by the team’s purpose and goals.

C. There are many team norms.

D. All of the above were mentioned concerning norms.

D. All of the above were mentioned concerning norms.
According to Tuckerman, _______ is the first stage teams go through.

A. forming

B. storming

C. norming

D. buy in

A. forming
Which of the following is false concerning delegating?

A. Delegation is a simple way for leaders to free themselves of time-consuming chores.

B. Delegating is less frequent in higher performing businesses.

C. Delegation increased the number of tasks accomplished by the work group.

D. Delegation gives followers developmental opportunities.

B. Delegating is less frequent in higher performing businesses.
Which of the following is not an important reason to delegate?

A. Delegation strengthens your organization.

B. Followers are developed by delegation.

C. Time is freed up for other activities by delegation.

D. All of these are important reasons to delegate.

D. All of these are important reasons to delegate.
All of the following are principles of effective delegation except

A. deciding who to delegate to.

B. assigning a procedure, not an objective.

C. give credit for a job well done, but take the responsibility when things go wrong.

D. All of the above.

B. assigning a procedure, not an objective.
Role theory clarifies how situational demands and constraints cause:

A. vertical complexity.

B. horizontal complexity.

C. role overload.

D. role conflict.

D. role conflict.
Jeff works as a self-employed consultant. He decides when, where, and how he works based on market demand and personal preference. Jeff’s job most likely has a high degree of task:

A. autonomy.

B. interdependence.

C. structure.

D. feedback.

A. autonomy.
There is a known procedure for accomplishing a task and rules governing how one goes about it. If these rules are followed, there is one result. These features most likely characterize:

A. task autonomy.

B. a structured task.

C. an unstructured task.

D. task interdependence.

B. a structured task.
A leader trying to solve a morale problem in the workplace is most likely facing a task that is:

A. structured.

B. synchronized.

C. unstructured.

D. technical.

C. unstructured.
Which of the following statements about unstructured tasks is most likely FALSE?

A. Unstructured tasks are by nature somewhat ill defined.

B. Reducing the ambiguity of an unstructured situation is a leadership behavior appreciated by followers.

C. While it is easier for a leader to give instruction in unstructured tasks, it is not necessarily the most helpful thing to do.

D. Subordinates need help when a task is unstructured.

C. While it is easier for a leader to give instruction in unstructured tasks, it is not necessarily the most helpful thing to do.
Workers may be able to accomplish their tasks in an autonomous fashion, but the products of their efforts must be coordinated in order for the group to be successful. This refers to:

A. task interdependence.

B. task autonomy.

C. task structure.

D. task feedback.

A. task interdependence.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an adaptive problem?

A. The problem can only be solved by changing the system itself.

B. It may be difficult to reach a consensus on what the problem really is.

C. The problem may be complex, but there is an expert solution to solve it.

D. Current resources and ways of thinking may be insufficient to solve the problem.

C. The problem may be complex, but there is an expert solution to solve it.
The information age organization operates with integrated business processes that cut across traditional business functions. This concerns which operating assumption underlying the information age?

A. Links to customers and suppliers

B. Cross functions

C. Global scales

D. Knowledge workers

B. Cross functions
Industrial age companies prospered by offering low-cost but standardized products and services. This pertains to:

A. customer segmentation.

B. links to customers and suppliers.

C. innovations.

D. cross functions.

A. customer segmentation.
The organizational structure is best described as:

A. a tangible reality.

B. an end in itself.

C. sacrosanct and permanent.

D. a tool for getting things done.

D. a tool for getting things done.
Typically, greater horizontal complexity is associated with:

A. the number of hierarchical levels appearing on an organization chart.

B. the increased likelihood for communication breakdowns between subunits.

C. the degree of standardization in an organization.

D. the diffusion of decision making throughout an organization.

B. the increased likelihood for communication breakdowns between subunits.
Which of the following is an advantage of decentralized organizations?

A. Uniform policies and procedures that are strictly enforced

B. Minimal participation in the decision process

C. Greater acceptance of decision outcomes

D. Clearer coordination procedures

C. Greater acceptance of decision outcomes
Organizational climate is best described as:

A. how well organizational members get along with each other.

B. a system of shared beliefs among members of a group.

C. highly related to task perceptions of work.

D. wider in scope than job satisfaction.

A. how well organizational members get along with each other.
Organizations with a _____ culture tend to have formalized rules and procedures.

A. clan

B. adhocracy

C. hierarchy

D. market

C. hierarchy
Which of the following types of culture has roots that mean “temporary or specialized”?

A. Adhocracy culture

B. Hierarchy culture

C. Clan culture

D. Market culture

A. Adhocracy culture
Which of the following statements concerning societal culture is most likely FALSE?

A. Societal culture is comprised of the learned behaviors characterizing the total way of life of members within any given society.

B. The beliefs and myths of a culture that provide context to manifest behaviors are generally hidden from view.

C. To most outsiders, the most salient and visible aspect of any culture is the values.

D. Becoming aware of cultural perspectives is critical for leaders in the global context.

C. To most outsiders, the most salient and visible aspect of any culture is the values.
According to the GLOBE study, societies higher on future orientation tend to:

A. have flexible and adaptive organizations and managers.

B. assign greater weight to love in marriage decisions.

C. have lower rates of economic success.

D. have lower heart attack rates.

A. have flexible and adaptive organizations and managers.
GLOBE researchers identified six cultural dimensions that were determined to be applicable across all global cultures for assessing culturally endorsed implicit theories of leadership (CLTs). Which of the following is NOT one of those dimensions?

A. Team-oriented leadership

B. Self-protective leadership

C. Autonomous leadership

D. Democratic leadership

D. Democratic leadership
According to GLOBE, which of the following is universally viewed as a negative leader attribute?

A. Formal

B. Domineering

C. Foresighted

D. Egocentric

D. Egocentric
According to GLOBE, which of the following behaviors is culturally contingent?

A. Asocial

B. Dynamic

C. Ambitious

D. Insensitive

C. Ambitious
What plays the most important role in determining who emerges as a leader, in response to the Great Man theory of leadership according to leadership researchers?

A. Abilities

B. Traits

C. Situation

D. Behavior

C. Situation
If we consider the example of ironing a shirt, which of the following task dimensions would be high?

A. Task feedback

B. Task autonomy

C. Task structure

D. Task interdependence

C. Task structure
This refers to the number of hierarchical levels appearing on an organization chart.

A. Centralization

B. Formalization

C. Horizontal complexity

D. Vertical complexity

D. Vertical complexity
Organizational climate

A. is highly related to job satisfaction.

B. is wider in scope.

C. has more to do with task perceptions of work.

D. is a system of shared beliefs among members of a group.

A. is highly related to job satisfaction.
GLOBE researchers identified six cultural dimensions that were determined to be applicable across all global cultures for assessing CLT’s including

A. team-oriented leadership.

B. self-protective leadership.

C. autonomous leadership.

D. All of these are applicable dimensions of culture.

D. All of these are applicable dimensions of culture.
GLOBE researchers identified 22 specific attributes and behaviors that are viewed universally across cultures as contributing to leadership effectiveness. Which of the following attributes was not included in that list?

A. Dependable

B. Decisive

C. Foresighted

D. Nonexplicit

D. Nonexplicit
GLOBE researchers identified 8 specific attributes and behaviors that are viewed universally across cultures as being impediments to leader effectiveness. Which of the following attributes was/were included in that list?

A. Cautious

B. Domineering

C. Asocial

D. All of these were included in the list.

C. Asocial
GLOBE researchers identified 35 specific attributes and behaviors that are viewed as positive in some cultures but negative in others. Which of the following attributes was/were included in that list?

A. Noncooperative

B. Formal

C. Dynamic

D. All of these were included in the list.

B. Formal
Which statement best summarizes the leader-member exchange (LMX) theory?

A. It highlights the flexibility needed by leaders.

B. It focuses on interactions between leaders and followers.

C. It looks at the positive and negative characteristics of situations.

D. It considers the effects of leader decision-making on group members.

B. It focuses on interactions between leaders and followers.
The normative decision model is limited only to:

A. decision making.

B. task behaviors.

C. goal accomplishment.

D. goal expectancy.

A. decision making.
If a decision has a rational or objectively determinable “better or worse” alternative, the leader should select the better alternative. This most likely refers to:

A. strategic agility.

B. decision acceptance.

C. problem solving.

D. decision quality.

D. decision quality.
Which of the following statements about the normative decision model is true?

A. The model shifts focus away from the leader and followers to the situation.

B. Decision tree questions focus on the problem and situational factors.

C. The model focuses on the effects of formal authority systems.

D. It is about personal opinions rather than theory.

B. Decision tree questions focus on the problem and situational factors.
Which two broad categories of leader behaviors did the situational leadership model originally identify?

A. Directive and supportive

B. Transformational and transactional

C. Behavior-oriented and cognitively-oriented

D. Initiating structure and consideration

D. Initiating structure and consideration
According to the situational leadership theory, four types of leadership behavior can be identified. They include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. delegating.

B. selling.

C. participating.

D. modeling.

D. modeling.
Follower readiness refers to a(n):

A. follower’s ability and willingness to accomplish a particular task.

B. assessment of an individual’s personality in certain situations.

C. personal trait or value that is difficult to change.

D. follower’s reaction to certain leadership styles.

A. follower’s ability and willingness to accomplish a particular task.
What should leaders first assess in order to apply the situational leadership model?

A. The level of task and relationship behavior that will likely produce successful outcomes.

B. The readiness level of the follower relative to the task to be accomplished.

C. The leader’s behavior that best suits the current situation and task.

D. The historical behavior patterns of the leader and follower.

B. The readiness level of the follower relative to the task to be accomplished.
In terms of the four leadership styles of situational leadership, a high task/low relationship behavior is referred to as:

A. delegating.

B. selling.

C. participating.

D. telling.

D. telling.
The delegating leadership style has:

A. high task/low relationship behavior.

B. low task/low relationship behavior.

C. high task/high relationship behavior.

D. low task/high relationship behavior.

B. low task/low relationship behavior.
Which of the following statements is most likely true of the leadership theories?

A. Situational Leadership suggests that leaders remain consistent in their behaviors.

B. The contingency model emphasizes flexibility in leader behaviors.

C. Situational Leadership asserts that leaders should use a decision tree in stressful situations.

D. The contingency model suggests that leader effectiveness depends on selecting the right kind of leader for a certain situation.

D. The contingency model suggests that leader effectiveness depends on selecting the right kind of leader for a certain situation.
Situational Leadership suggests that effective leaders base behavior upon:

A. valued rewards.

B. follower maturity.

C. task structure.

D. leader-member relations.

B. follower maturity.
Which of the following instruments does Fiedler’s contingency theory use to determine the relevant characteristic of the leader?

A. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

B. The California Personality Inventory

C. The Least Preferred Co-worker Scale

D. The Five Factor Personality Inventory

C. The Least Preferred Co-worker Scale
Which of the following statements about high-LPC leaders is most likely true?

A. If tasks are being accomplished in an acceptable manner, they will move to their secondary level of motivation, which is forming and maintaining relationships with followers.

B. They focus on improving their relationships with followers after they are assured that assigned tasks are being satisfactorily accomplished.

C. They are primarily satisfied by establishing and maintaining close interpersonal relationships.

D. They primarily gain satisfaction from task accomplishment.

C. They are primarily satisfied by establishing and maintaining close interpersonal relationships.
What is the weakest element of situational favorability?

A. Subordinate acceptance

B. Leader-member relations

C. Task structure

D. Position power

D. Position power
The highest levels of situational favorability most likely occur when:

A. leader-member relations are good, the task is structured, and position power is high.

B. there are high levels of leader-member conflict, the task is unstructured, and the leader uses reward power.

C. leader-member relations are good, the task is unstructured, and position power is low.

D. there are high levels of leader-member conflict, the task is structured, and the leader uses coercive power.

A. leader-member relations are good, the task is structured, and position power is high.
According to the path-goal theory, which leader behavior is most likely characterized by remaining open and approachable to followers?

A. Achievement-oriented leadership

B. Directive leadership

C. Participative leadership

D. Supportive leadership

D. Supportive leadership
Leaders exhibiting participative leadership are most likely to:

A. emphasize status differentials among followers.

B. establish norms and procedures immediately.

C. share work problems with followers.

D. be viewed as demanding.

C. share work problems with followers.
Which of the following statements about the path-goal theory is most likely FALSE?

A. The three sub-elements in situation favorability are the task, the formal authority system, and the primary work group.

B. Redundant leader behaviors might be interpreted by followers as a lack of understanding.

C. If a task is very structured, informal authority decreases follower motivation levels.

D. It maintains that follower and situational variables can impact each other.

C. If a task is very structured, informal authority decreases follower motivation levels.
In terms of the path-goal theory, which of the following is considered a situational factor?

A. The decision quality

B. Leader-member relations

C. Position power

D. The task

D. The task
What is the unique contribution of the LMX theory?

A. It looks at just the personal characteristics of the leader.

B. It looks at the nature of the relationship between the leader and his/her followers.

C. It looks at the characteristics of the situation.

D. It looks at the interaction between the leader and his/her followers.

B. It looks at the nature of the relationship between the leader and his/her followers.
The least amount of time is taken to make and implement

A. group decisions.

B. consultative decisions.

C. autocratic decisions.

D. delegated decisions.

C. autocratic decisions.
Which of the following statements about the normative decision model is true?

A. The model shifts focus away from the leader and followers to the situation.

B. For ease of presentation, each factor has been placed solely within one circle or another.

C. It organizes concepts in a familiar initiating structure.

D. It is about personal opinions, rather than a leadership theory.

B. For ease of presentation, each factor has been placed solely within one circle or another.
Situational leadership theory has its roots in

A. the University of Michigan studies.

B. the Ohio State studies.

C. the Yale-Harvard
Leadership project.

D. the Hawthorne studies.

B. the Ohio State studies.
The only situational consideration in situational leadership is

A. decision making.

B. readiness.

C. knowledge of the task.

D. goal setting.

C. knowledge of the task.
Which of the following is the most powerful subelement in determining overall situation favorability?

A. Leader-member relations

B. Task structures

C. Position powers

D. Subordinate acceptance

A. Leader-member relations
Which leader behaviors are marked by attention to the competing demands of treating followers equally while recognizing status differentials between the leader and the followers?

A. Achievement-oriented leadership

B. Directive leadership

C. Participative leadership

D. Supportive leadership

D. Supportive leadership
Leaders exhibiting participative leadership

A. are very similar to the task behaviors from SLT.

B. are very similar to the relationship behaviors in SLT.

C. engage in the behaviors that mark consultative and group behaviors.

D. would be seen as both demanding and supporting in interactions with their followers.

C. engage in the behaviors that mark consultative and group behaviors.
Internal-locus-of-control followers

A. are much more satisfied with leaders who exhibit achievement-oriented behaviors than they are with leaders who are supportive.

B. believe outcomes are a result of their own decisions.

C. are more satisfied with directive leader behaviors than they are with participative leader behaviors.

D. believe they are, relatively speaking, “pawns of fate”.

B. believe outcomes are a result of their own decisions.
Which of the following statements about the path-goal theory is true?

A. It considers three subelements in situation favorability including leader-member relations, task structure and position power.

B. If a task is very structured and routine, the formal authority system has constrained followers’ behaviors.

C. It maintains that follower and situational variables can impact each other.

D. Redundant leader behaviors might be interpreted by followers as a complete lack of understanding.

C. It maintains that follower and situational variables can impact each other.
The formula for the rational approach to change is:

A. C = D × O × T > R

B. C = D × M × P > R

C. C = M × R × D > P

D. C = D × O × L × T

B. C = D × M × P > R
According to Beer’s model for organizational change, leaders can increase the amount of change by:

A. increasing the amount of resistance in followers.

B. decreasing the level of dissatisfaction.

C. having an unstructured change plan.

D. increasing the clarity of vision.

D. increasing the clarity of vision.
According to Beer’s model for organizational change formula, what does C represent?

A. Amount of coordination

B. Type of coordination

C. Amount of change

D. Type of change

C. Amount of change
Which of the following leader actions would LEAST likely increase follower dissatisfaction levels?

A. Lowering employee performance standards

B. Comparing benchmarks against other organizations

C. Capitalizing on some type of financial or political crisis

D. Talking about potential competitive threats against the organization

A. Lowering employee performance standards
Which of the following statements about a company’s vision is most likely FALSE?

A. A vision helps the organization make choices about what it should and should not do.

B. A vision statement should provide guidance for an organization’s actions.

C. Leaders often work with a team of followers to craft a vision statement.

D. The final destination for an organization is identified in its vision.

D. The final destination for an organization is identified in its vision.
The type of thinking that occurs when leaders act to optimize their part of the organization at the expense of suboptimizing the organization’s overall effectiveness is known as:

A. systems thinking.

B. reframing.

C. resistance.

D. siloed thinking.

D. siloed thinking.
What is the underlying cause for a huge percentage of failed change initiatives?

A. The leader is unable or unwilling to address organizational culture and capabilities issues.

B. The leader optimizes one part of the organization at the expense of the firm’s stockholders.

C. The leader lacks a compelling vision for the financial strength of the organization.

D. The leader fails to demonstrate empathy and listening skills with key followers.

A. The leader is unable or unwilling to address organizational culture and capabilities issues.
The _____ component of the change model involves the change initiative becoming tangible and actionable because it consists of the development and execution of the change plan.

A. structural system

B. dissatisfaction

C. resistance

D. process

D. process
The “S” in the SARA model refers to:

A. stress.

B. shock.

C. situation.

D. systems.

B. shock.
In the _____ stage of coping with change, you start to question whether the company really knew what it was doing by letting you go and perhaps rationalize that they will probably be calling you back.

A. acceptance

B. rejection

C. anger

D. shock

B. rejection
The _____ authority system is associated with leaders thought to possess divine or superhuman qualities.

A. traditional

B. legal-rational

C. charismatic

D. personalized

C. charismatic
Transactional leadership:

A. occurs when a person possesses authority not because of tradition, but because of the laws that govern the position occupied.

B. serves to change the status quo by appealing to followers’ values and their sense of higher purpose.

C. occurs when the traditions of society dictate who has authority and how this authority can be used.

D. occurs when leaders and followers are in some type of exchange relationship in order to get needs met.

D. occurs when leaders and followers are in some type of exchange relationship in order to get needs met.
_____ leadership serves to change the status quo by appealing to followers’ values and their sense of higher purpose.

A. Supportive

B. Transactional

C. Transformational

D. Participative

C. Transformational
Which of the following statements is most likely true of leaders?

A. Transactional leaders motivate societal change.

B. All transformational leaders are charismatic.

C. All charismatic leaders are transformational.

D. Transactional leaders are highly uncommon.

B. All transformational leaders are charismatic.
Which of the following statements about transformational leaders is most likely true?

A. They are inherently future-oriented.

B. Their vision is based solely on their own values.

C. They struggle with reframing issues and concepts.

D. They are rarely controversial or emotionally expressive.

A. They are inherently future-oriented.
_____ takes place when followers do no more than abide by the policies and procedures surrounding change requests.

A. Cooperation

B. Compliance

C. Commitment

D. Malicious compliance

B. Compliance
Which of the following is the most important situational factor associated with charismatic leadership?

A. Technological innovation

B. Task interdependence

C. Organizational downsizing

D. Presence/absence of a crisis

D. Presence/absence of a crisis
According to Bass, transformational leaders most likely:

A. possess impression management skills.

B. motivate followers by setting goals.

C. use rewards to boost performance.

D. perpetuate the status quo.

A. possess impression management skills.
According to the Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire (MLQ), which type of leader avoids responsibilities, fails to make decisions, or is absent when needed?

A. Bureaucratic

B. Autocratic

C. Laissez-faire

D. Democratic

C. Laissez-faire
Which component of transformational leadership most strongly correlates to the Five Factor Model (FFM) personality dimension of agreeableness?

A. Inspiring trust

B. Visionary thinking

C. Empowering others

D. High impact delivery

C. Empowering others
The “M” in the rational change formula represents

A. money.

B. manpower.

C. model.

D. motivation.

C. model.
What is the “fuel” for organizational change?

A. Organization’s goals

B. Follower’s emotions

C. Vision

D. Building trust

B. Follower’s emotions
In general, which is the first step that leaders can take to increase follower dissatisfaction levels?

A. To determine just how satisfied followers are with the current situation.

B. To talk about potential competitive, technology or employee concerns about the status quo.

C. To capitalize on some type of financial or political crisis.

D. To create some type of benchmark against other organizations.

A. To determine just how satisfied followers are with the current situation.
Leaders should think about the organization as a set of interlocking systems in

A. reframing.

B. siloed thinking.

C. systems thinking approach.

D. resistance.

C. systems thinking approach.
Which of following is not a common form of resistance to change?

A. Loss of power

B. Loss of competence

C. Loss of charisma

D. Loss of rewards

C. Loss of charisma
When followers are afraid of losing power, a leader’s response to this fear would be

A. to coach, mentor, train, peer coach, use job aids and so forth.

B. to demonstrate empathy and have good listening skills.

C. to help employees build new relationships before change occurs or soon thereafter.

D. to design and implement a new reward system to support change initiative.

B. to demonstrate empathy and have good listening skills.
Usually the first people to realize that a change initiative needs to be implemented are the organization’s

A. first-line supervisors.

B. middle managers.

C. top leaders.

D. individual contributors.

C. top leaders.
Management skills are important for

A. coaching followers on how to do things differently.

B. determining a new vision for the organization.

C. increasing dissatisfaction.

D. reviewing progress on change plans.

D. reviewing progress on change plans.
Persons derive authority because of their exemplary characteristics in the

A. charismatic authority system.

B. traditional authority system.

C. legal-rational authority system.

D. legal authority system.

A. charismatic authority system.
The _____ authority system is associated with leaders thought to possess divine or superhuman qualities.

A. traditional

B. legal-rational

C. charismatic

D. personalized

C. charismatic
According to the research on charismatic leadership, which of the following characteristics would fall in the leader category in the L-F-S interactional framework?

A. Crises

B. Feelings of empowerment

C. Rhetorical skills

D. Task interdependence

C. Rhetorical skills
According to research, the leader’s vision is

A. consistent with current realities.

B. usually presented in written form so subordinates can study it.

C. often depressing (in the short run) for the subordinates who must change their view.

D. often a collaborative effort.

D. often a collaborative effort.
Charismatic leaders

A. use abstract and colorless rational discourse to reframe issues.

B. make extensive use of stories to make their points.

C. are adept at tailoring their language to particular groups.

D. are good in engaging groups mentally and emotionally.

B. make extensive use of stories to make their points.
Charismatic leaders tend to be

A. extremely smart.

B. data-driven.

C. emotionally expressive.

D. fairly introverted.

C. emotionally expressive.
What is probably the most important and overlooked situational variable that affects charismatic leadership?

A. Task

B. Stability

C. Time

D. Innovation

C. Time
According to Bass, transformational leaders

A. possess good visioning.

B. motivate followers by setting goals.

C. promise rewards for desired performance.

D. perpetuates the status quo.

A. possess good visioning.
According to the MLQ, which leadership type is a significantly better predictor of organizational effectiveness as compared to the others?

A. Autocratic

B. Transactional

C. Laissez-faire

D. Transformational

D. Transformational
According to research, between 50-90 percent of all new businesses fail within five years due to:

A. insufficient investment capital.

B. managerial incompetence.

C. unethical business practices.

D. poor target marketing.

B. managerial incompetence.
Which individuals are good at building teams and getting results through others?

A. Cheerleaders

B. Taskmasters

C. Competent managers

D. Figurehead managers

C. Competent managers
Which individuals achieve short-lived results because they treat followers very poorly?

A. Taskmasters

B. Figureheads

C. Competent managers

D. Cheerleaders

A. Taskmasters
Cheerleaders:

A. only focus on getting results.

B. avoid the spotlight.

C. tend to treat followers poorly.

D. are people-centered.

D. are people-centered.
Which type of leader does not want attention and has difficulties with both building teams and getting results?

A. Taskmasters

B. Competent managers

C. Figureheads

D. Cheerleaders

C. Figureheads
Which of the following most likely underlies the management derailment pattern of being unable to lead and build a team?

A. The presence of dark-side traits

B. Inadequate distribution channels

C. Poor product development decisions

D. Lying about business and financial results

A. The presence of dark-side traits
Managers who derail due to an inability to build relationships with co-workers are most likely:

A. overly sensitive.

B. domineering.

C. self-conscious.

D. lazy.

B. domineering.
In the context of managerial derailment, _____ is a factor associated with destructive leadership.

A. inability to adapt to new situations

B. failure to meet business objectives

C. inability to build relationships

D. inability to build and lead teams

B. failure to meet business objectives
When people in positions of authority face extremely tough situational or follower events that temporarily interfere with their ability to build teams and get results, it is known as:

A. chronic managerial incompetence.

B. authoritarian management.

C. impoverished management.

D. episodic managerial incompetence.

D. episodic managerial incompetence.
_____ is defined as the relevant knowledge a person can leverage to solve a problem.

A. Managerial competence

B. Technical expertise

C. Subject matter expertise

D. Team-building know-how

C. Subject matter expertise
_____ are followers who seek forgiveness rather than permission and offer alternative solutions.

A. Slackers

B. Brown-nosers

C. Criticizers

D. Self-starters

D. Self-starters
Which of the following is NOT a dark-side personality trait?

A. Cautious

B. Mischievous

C. Charismatic

D. Diligent

C. Charismatic
Which dark-side personality trait most likely describes a leader who is spineless and won’t stand up for subordinates?

A. Skeptical

B. Colorful

C. Dutiful

D. Imaginative

C. Dutiful
Because of their narcissistic tendencies, _____ leaders often get quite a bit done.

A. reserved

B. bold

C. dutiful

D. colorful

B. bold
Leaders with this dark-side trait have an unhealthy mistrust of others, are constantly questioning the motives and integrity of their followers, and are vigilant for signs of disloyalty. Which dark-side personality trait is defined by this statement?

A. Bold

B. Excitable

C. Skeptical

D. Cautious

C. Skeptical
Diligent leaders are most likely to:

A. blame others for their mistakes.

B. deal with stress by trying to gain favors from superiors.

C. frustrate their staffs through micro-management.

D. be unconcerned about the welfare of their staff.

C. frustrate their staffs through micro-management.
Which dark-side personality trait is associated with a leader who becomes withdrawn during times of stress?

A. Excitable

B. Reserved

C. Skeptical

D. Dutiful

B. Reserved
Which of the following statements concerning dark-side traits is most likely FALSE?

A. Many dark-side traits covary with social skills.

B. Everyone has at least one dark-side personality trait.

C. Dark-side traits are usually apparent only when leaders are attending to their public image.

D. Dark-side traits usually emerge during crises or periods of high stress and serve as coping mechanisms.

C. Dark-side traits are usually apparent only when leaders are attending to their public image.
Which managerial types have most likely gained insight into their dark-side traits and found ways to negate the debilitating effects of these traits on followers?

A. Competent Managers

B. Taskmasters

C. Cheerleaders

D. Figureheads

A. Competent Managers
Jim Collins’ study of highly successful companies that subsequently failed indicated that these firms went through a five-stage process toward failure. What is the first stage of the process?

A. Leaders focus on succession planning initiatives, and firms expand globally.

B. Firms focus on external factors such as competitors and changing technologies.

C. Leaders strive to merge with successful companies to gain more market share.

D. Firms become insulated by success, and leaders adopt an entitlement mentality.

D. Firms become insulated by success, and leaders adopt an entitlement mentality.
Which of the following individuals are only focused on getting results and would gladly trash any teammate if it would help them get promoted?

A. Results only managers

B. In name only managers

C. Competent managers

D. Cheerleaders

A. Results only managers
These persons in positions of authority do not want attention and have difficulties with both building teams and getting results.

A. Results only managers

B. Competent managers

C. In name only managers

D. Cheerleaders

C. In name only managers
The key to success for organizations is to make sure that

A. They have higher percentages of in name only managers who occupy critical positions

B. They have a higher percentage of competent managers than their competitors

C. They have a high percentage of cheerleaders

D. They have results-only-managers in pivotal leadership roles

B. They have a higher percentage of competent managers than their competitors
Derailed managers who derail due to an inability to build relationships with coworkers have which of the following characteristics?

A. Failure to staff effectively

B. Organizational isolation

C. Lack of hard work

D. Difficulty making strategic transitions

B. Organizational isolation
What is cited as one of the primary reasons for CEO failure?

A. Making poor decisions concerning which markets to pursue

B. Problems developing a vision or strategy for the company

C. People problems

D. Failure to keep promises, commitments or deadlines

C. People problems
Among the root causes of managerial derailment identified in the Leader-Follower-Situation model, a “lack of fit” falls under which group of causes?

A. An overlap of causes related to the leader and the situation.

B. An overlap of causes related to the leader and the follower.

C. An overlap of causes related to the follower and the situation.

D. Causes related to the leaders.

A. An overlap of causes related to the leader and the situation.
Poor followership was one of the root causes of managerial derailment identified in the Leader-Follower-Situation model which is classified as being under which group of causes?

A. Causes related to the followers

B. An overlap of causes related to the leader and the follower

C. Causes related to the leaders

D. An overlap of causes related to the follower and the situation

C. Causes related to the leaders
Bad leadership is associated with which of the following managerial derailment factors?

A. Inability to adapt.

B. Failure to meet business objectives.

C. Inability to build relationships.

D. Inability to build and lead teams.

B. Failure to meet business objectives.
An example of a situational factor that can interfere with a person’s ability to be seen as a competent manager would be

A. governmental regulations.

B. mergers.

C. competitive threats.

D. All of these are situational factors.

D. All of these are situational factors.
The term “organizational fit” refers to

A. the degree of agreement between personal and organizational values and beliefs.

B. the degree of congruence between a manager’s skill set and the organization’s needs.

C. the organization’s strategic alignment within their competitive sector given the organization’s leadership profile.

D. None of the above.

A. the degree of agreement between personal and organizational values and beliefs.
Competent mangers have high levels of

A. situational awareness.

B. self awareness.

C. neither situational nor self awareness.

D. Both situational and self awareness.

D. Both situational and self awareness.
Smart mangers tend to do a better job of

A. recognizing problems.

B. developing work processes.

C. hiring staff.

D. all of the above.

D. all of the above.
Leaders that are _____________ tend to be quite charming but take pleasure in seeing if they can get away with breaking commitments.

A. skeptical

B. bold

C. mischievous

D. imaginative

C. mischievous
Dutiful leaders

A. Tend to blame others for their mistakes

B. Frustrate and disempower their staffs through micro-management

C. Deal with stress by sucking up to superiors

D. Are unconcerned about the welfare of their staff

C. Deal with stress by sucking up to superiors
Which dark-side personality trait is often associated perfectionist tendencies?

A. Excitable

B. Diligent

C. Skeptical

D. Colorful

B. Diligent
Which of the following statements concerning dark side traits in true?

A. Many dark-side traits co-vary with social skills and are difficult to detect in interviews or assessment centers or with bright-side personality inventories.

B. Everyone has at least one dark side personality trait.

C. Dark-side traits are usually apparent only when leaders are not attending to their public image.

D. All of these statements are true.

D. All of these statements are true.
People most likely get more involved in a leader’s vision when _____ are used.

A. lengthy, formal speeches

B. PowerPoint presentations

C. personal experiences

D. current statistics

C. personal experiences
Which of the following is NOT a component of the leadership vision?

A. Ideas

B. Edge

C. Policies

D. Expectations

C. Policies
Which of the following would LEAST likely cause a conflict in a work group?

A. Group members competing for rewards

B. Group members facing uncertain demands

C. Group members having similar short-term goals

D. Group members having strong differences in values

C. Group members having similar short-term goals
Researchers have found that conflict can most likely cause a radical change in:

A. perception.

B. political power.

C. task delegation.

D. negotiation terms.

B. political power.
Which conflict resolution strategy is known as a win-lose orientation?

A. Avoidance

B. Competition

C. Collaboration

D. Accommodation

B. Competition
Which of the following is NOT one of the five general approaches to managing conflict?

A. Avoidance

B. Sharing

C. Negotiation

D. Competition

C. Negotiation
Which conflict resolution strategy most likely leaves both parties moderately, but incompletely, satisfied?

A. Sharing

B. Competition

C. Collaboration

D. Accommodation

A. Sharing
_____ is an approach to managing conflict that is characterized by a compromise between domination and appeasement.

A. Avoidance

B. Sharing

C. Collaboration

D. Accommodation

B. Sharing
The conflict resolution strategy of collaboration most likely involves:

A. appeasement.

B. domination.

C. compromise.

D. integration.

D. integration.
Which of the following is most likely a true statement about negotiation?

A. Negotiators should separate the people from the problem.

B. Win-win negotiation is always the best technique.

C. Negotiation generally involves only two people.

D. Negotiators benefit from embracing their fears.

A. Negotiators should separate the people from the problem.
Which equation represents the model of performance?

A. Expectations = f (Performance × Capabilities × Opportunities × Motivation)

B. Performance = f (Expectations × Capabilities × Opportunities × Motivation)

C. Capabilities = f (Expectations × Performance × Opportunities × Motivation)

D. Performance = f (Expectations × Capabilities × Programs × Rewards)

B. Performance = f (Expectations × Capabilities × Opportunities × Motivation)
What is the main purpose of using the model of performance?

A. Identifying job satisfaction levels in the industry

B. Benchmarking the organizational climate

C. Initiating performance appraisals

D. Managing problem performers

D. Managing problem performers
What should a leader most likely do if the model of performance reveals that expectations for compliance are causing performance problems?

A. Provide training opportunities

B. Utilize reward power

C. Clarify team goals

D. Delegate tasks

C. Clarify team goals
Which statement is most likely true of capabilities?

A. Skills are synonymous with raw talent.

B. Abilities are difficult to change with training.

C. Intelligence and creativity are considered skills.

D. The two components of capabilities are talent and motivation.

B. Abilities are difficult to change with training.
In the performance model, opportunities would most likely refer to:

A. financial resources.

B. inadequate training.

C. performance standards.

D. ineffective punishments.

A. financial resources.
Which of the following would LEAST likely address motivation problems in a work group?

A. Linking rewards to performance levels

B. Reallocating work across the team

C. Providing performance feedback

D. Obtaining necessary equipment

D. Obtaining necessary equipment
Which statement about executive teams is most likely FALSE?

A. Executive teams are often bogged down making operational decisions.

B. Executive teams have the opportunity to change organizational systems.

C. Not all the work that is done at the executive level requires all or any of the team members to be present.

D. Because of their level in the organization, most executive teams are shielded from many of the resource constraints other teams face.

C. Not all the work that is done at the executive level requires all or any of the team members to be present.
Which of the following is a team trip wire presented by Hackman?

A. Create an inappropriate authority balance in the group

B. Define tasks for which members are collectively responsible

C. Specify simple team objectives and provide adequate resources

D. Provide organizational support for task-performing teams and work groups

A. Create an inappropriate authority balance in the group
Properly administered punishment most likely:

A. is highly unethical.

B. suppresses undesirable behavior.

C. is handled in a public or group setting.

D. causes undesirable emotional side effects.

B. suppresses undesirable behavior.
When administering punishment, a leader should most likely:

A. focus his or her attention on the person rather than the act.

B. delegate the task to a group of peers for impact.

C. identify future consequences of misbehavior.

D. utilize the performance model as a guide.

C. identify future consequences of misbehavior.
People get more involved in the leader’s vision when ________ are used.

A. formal speeches

B. PowerPoint presentations

C. stories

D. long presentations

C. stories
Which of the following is not a component of the leadership vision?

A. Ideas

B. Edge

C. Operating principles

D. Expectations

C. Operating principles
Which of the following would not cause a conflict?

A. Groups members face uncertain demands.

B. Members are competing for rewards.

C. Teams have low levels of task interdependence.

D. Members of teams have strong differences in values and goals.

C. Teams have low levels of task interdependence.
Researchers have found that _________ can cause a radical change in political power.

A. communication

B. conflict

C. negotiation

D. none of the above

B. conflict