A&P Test #2

Anatomy and physiology are difficult to separate because A. physiological functions depend on anatomical structures. B. physiological functions in an organism are ongoing.
C. body parts take up space.
D. our understanding of physiology is changing more than our understanding of anatomy.
The origin of the term “anatomy” is related to

A. the Greek word for “function.” B. the name of the first anatomist. C. the Greek word for “cutting up.” D. the function of internal organs.

The term “physiology” is related to

A. the Latin for “physical shape.” B. the structure of internal organs. C. the Greek for “cutting up.” D. the Greek for “relationship to nature.”

The recent discovery of taste receptors in the small intestine that detect sweetness illustrates that

A. chemical responses occur in only one part of the body.
B. new discoveries about anatomy and physiology are still being made.
C. everything there is to know about anatomy and physiology has been discovered.
D. They are found in many types of cells

Which of the following is not true of organelles?
A. They carry on specific activities. B. They are only in cells of humans. C. They are composed of aggregates of large molecules. D. They are found in many types of cells.
Assimilation is
A. changing absorbed substances into different chemical forms. B. breaking down foods into nutrients that the body can absorb. C. eliminating waste from the body. D. an increase in body size without a change in overall shape.
The ability of an organism to sense and react to changes in its body illustrates
A. circulation.
B. respiration.
C. responsiveness.
D. absorption.
16. Metabolism is defined as _____. A. the removal of wastes produced by chemical reactions
B. the breakdown of substances into simpler forms
C. the taking in of nutrients
D. all the chemical reactions occurring in an organism that support life
17. Which of the following processes does not help to maintain the life of an individual organism?
A. Responsiveness
B. Movement
C. Reproduction
D. Respiration
Which of the following is not an example of a homeostatic mechanism in the human body? A. Shivering when body temperature falls below normal. B. Increasing heart rate and force of contraction when blood pressure falls.
C.Retention of fluid leading to retention of more fluid.
D. Secreting insulin after a meal to return blood sugar concentration toward normal.
21. Living organisms use oxygen to __________________.
A. reduce heat production B. donate electrons for cellular metabolism C. release energy stored in the molecules of food D. remove metabolic wastes
22. Maintaining a stable internal environment typically requires A. positive feedback mechanisms. B. an unstable outside environment. C. decreased atmospheric pressure.
D. negative feedback mechanisms.
23. A blood clot stimulating further clotting is an example of
A. a positive feedback mechanism.
B. a negative feedback mechanism. C. a process turning itself off. D. nervous system communication.
Homeostasis exists if concentrations of water, nutrients, and oxygen in the body are balanced and heat and pressure __________.
A. decrease steadily
B. remain within certain limited ranges
C. increase when the body is stressed
D. fluctuate greatly between very high and low values
Which of the following illustrates a positive feedback mechanism? A. Maintaining blood pressure B. Uterine contractions during childbirth
C. Body temperature control D. Control of blood sugar
31. Which of the following organs is in the abdominopelvic cavity? A. The heart
B. The trachea
C. The thymus
D. The liver
6. Blood cells are produced in the organs of the _______ system. A. endocrine
B. skeletal
C. respiratory
D. muscular
37. A parietal layer of a serous membrane _______, whereas a visceral layer of a serous membrane ________. A. covers organs; lines cavities B. lines cavities; covers organs C. secretes serous fluid; secretes mucus
D. secretes mucus; secretes a serous fluid
Cell death first occurs
A. at age 60.
B. at age 50.
C. at puberty.
D. in the fetus.
An obstetrician tells a 42-year-old patient that she can have a healthy baby, but that she is of “advanced maternal age.” The patient is so upset that she fails to listen to the rest of the doctor’s advice, goes home in a huff, and immediately dyes her hair, buys a miniskirt, and signs up for botox injections to smooth the tiny lines near her eyes. She is misinterpreting the doctor’s statement because it referred to A. the age of the sperm.
B. the age of her eggs.
C. her risk of developing diabetes. D. her cholesterol level, not her appearance.
Wrinkled and sagging skin results from A. drinking too much water. B. heredity only.
C. loss of subcutaneous fat, elastin, and collagen.
D. excess subcutaneous fat.
Signs of aging at the cellular level are (Select all that apply)
_A.graying hair, waning strength, and wrinkles.
B. unrepaired DNA and abnormal proteins.
C. impaired cell division and the ability to break down and recycle worn cell parts
D. a fatty liver and clogged blood vessels.
B, C
One characteristic that centenarians share is
A. a high level of exercise throughout life.
B. long-lived relatives.
C. following the Mediterranean diet.
D. never having smoked.
43. An anatomical section that separates the body into right and left portions is a __________ section. A. frontal
B. transverse
C. coronal
D. sagittal
Which of the following are vital signs?
A. Body temperature, blood pressure, and pulse rate B. Appearance of the skin, red blood cell count, oxygen level C. Body weight, age, gender D. Visual acuity and auditory sharpness
Sodium ions and calcium ions are examples of
A. cations.
B. uncharged particles.
C. anions.
D. salts.
When cations and anions meet, they
A. repel.
B. form ionic bonds.
C. form covalent bonds.
D. form individual molecules.
Water causes ionically-bonded atoms to
A. bond more strongly. B. dissociate.
C. bond covalently.
D. decompose.
Which of the following isotopes has the longest half-life?
A. Iodine-131
B. Iron-59
C. Phosphorus-32
D. Cobalt-60
The ______ uses iodine in a synthesis reaction.
A. spleen
B. liver
C. thymus
D. thyroid gland
The isotope most likely to be used to study the thyroid gland is
. Chemistry deals with
A. the composition and changes of substances that make up living as well as non-living matter.
B. the composition and changes of substances found in organisms only
. C. the composition of and changes of substances that make up non-living matter only.
D. the location of organs in body cavities
Chemistry is important to the study of physiology because
A. the foods that we eat are chemicals.
B. body functions depend on cellular functions that reflect chemical changes.
C. chemical reactions enable our bodies to extract energy from nutrients.
D. all of the above.
The atoms of different elements have A. the same atomic number and same atomic weight. B. the same atomic number but different atomic weights.
C. different atomic numbers. D. different atomic numbers but the same number of electrons.
When forming a bond, an atom that has 3 electrons in its second shell and a filled first shell will
A. lose 3 electrons from its second shell.
B. lose all of the electrons from its first shell.
C. lose all of the electrons from both its first and second shells. D. gain 5 electrons in its second shell.
A chemical reaction in which parts of different molecules trade positions is a(n)
A. decomposition reaction. B. exchange reaction.
C. reversible reaction.
D. synthesis reaction.
Which of the following choices includes all acids?
A. Egg whites, baking soda, milk of magnesia, and bleach
B. Tomatoes, egg whites, and baking soda
C. Vinegar, grapes, tomatoes, and coffee
D. Beer, butter, and baking soda
Electrolytes are substances that A. form covalent bonds with water. B. ionize in water.
C. cannot conduct electricity in solution.
D. form bonds that are stable in water.
The pH scale measures the A. concentration of hydrogen ions in solution.
B. number of molecules of salts dissolved in water.
C. number of hydroxide ions in water.
D. strength of an electrical current that a solution carries.
Synthesis reactions are particularly important in the body for A. release of energy.
B. digestion of food products. C. growth of body parts. D. neutralization of acids by buffers.
An acid reacting with a base is
A. a synthesis reaction.
B. hydrolysis.
C. a decomposition reaction.
D. an exchange reaction.
Bases reacting with acids form ________ and water.
A. buffers
B. salts
C. new elements
D. proteins
The secondary structure of a protein molecule is the result of A. oxygen double bonds. B. covalent bonds.
C. ionic bonds.
D. hydrogen bonds.
Proteins denature when
A. bonds between carbon and oxygen break.
B. hydrogen bonds break. C. peptide bonds break.
D. peptide bonds form.
Which of the following is not organic? A. Sodium chloride B. Lipids
C. Nucleic acids
D. Enzymes
The parts of a protein that change when it denatures are
A. the primary and secondary structures.
B. the secondary and tertiary structures.
C. the amino acid sequence and the secondary structure.
D. the tertiary and quaternary structures.
The informational content of DNA and RNA is in the nitrogenous bases because
A. the bases are of several types and therefore can form a code sequence.
B. they all contain nitrogen.
C. the sugars and phosphates vary. D. the bases are also parts of amino acids.
DNA and RNA differ in that
A. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose.
B. RNA is double-stranded and DNA is single-stranded.
C. DNA holds genetic information and RNA uses that information to synthesize protein.
D. RNA is found only in the nucleus and DNA is found only in the cytoplasm.
The type of organic molecule that can replicate is a
A. protein.
B. lipid.
C. carbohydrate.
D. nucleic acid.
Conformation is
the three-dimensional shape of a molecule, such as a protein.
B. the energy held in the bonds of an organic molecule, such as a protein.
C. the ability of DNA to copy itself. D. the amino acid sequence (primary structure) of a protein.
Which of these is not a monosaccharide? A. Glucose B. Ribose
C. 6-carbon sugar
D. Sucrose
Glycogen is stored in the liver and ______.
A. spleen
B. skeletal muscles
C. pancreas
D. heart
A triglyceride consists of A. 3 glycerols and 1 fatty acid.
B. 3 glucose molecules.
C. 3 fatty acids and 3 phosphate groups.
D. 3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol.
Which of the following groups of compounds is hydrophobic? A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic Acids
Which of the following molecules does not have a polar region? A. Water
B. Triglyceride
C. Water-soluble amino acid
D. Glucose
About how many cells constitute the body of an adult?
A. 50 to 100 million
B. 50 to 100 billion
C. 50 to 100 trillion
D. 50 to 100 quadrillion
A selectively permeable membrane
A. allows all substances to pass through.
B. allows all organic substances to pass through but excludes all inorganic substances.
C. allows some substances to pass through and excludes others. D. does not allow any substances to pass through.
The major components of the cell membrane are
A. lipids and carbohydrates. B. proteins and carbohydrates. C. lipids and proteins. D. carbohydrates and polysaccharides.
The cell membrane A. maintains the integrity of the cell.
B. controls the entry and exit of various substances.
C. provides a barrier to water-soluble substances.
D. has all of the above characteristics.
Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?
A. A solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules
B. A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move
C. Rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended
D. Three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside
A protein that spans the cell membrane is termed a(n) A. receptor protein.
B. integral protein.
C. peripheral protein.
D. anchoring protein.
Cellular adhesion molecules are A. peripheral proteins.
B. integral proteins.
C. lipids.
D. receptors.
Endoplasmic reticulum is best described as a A. component of the cytoskeleton.
B. cellular inclusion.
C. nuclear pore.
D. network of interconnected membranes.
Vesicles are formed from A. lysosomal membrane.
B. nuclear membrane.
C. cell membrane.
D. mitochondrial membrane.
Which of the following describes a lysosome? A. A double-membraned organelle that is the “powerhouse” of the cell
B. A complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system in the cell C. A tiny, membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris
D. A nonmembranous structure that is essential for mitosis
young man who ran 6 miles a day throughout high school is injured during his first season running cross country in college, and must rest for three months, then gradually begin exercising again. The skeletal muscles in his lower limbs decrease in size during this prolonged period of inactivity. The organelles that break down his muscle protein are
A. peroxisomes. B. lysosomes. C. centrosomes. D. ribosomes.
For which of the following organelles are the structure and function correctly described?
Endoplasmic reticulum—a network of interconnected membranes forming sacs and canals that packages protein molecules for secretion
Ribosomes—membranous vesicles containing digestive enzymes
Golgi apparatus—particles, composed of protein and RNA, which synthesize proteins
Mitochondrion—nonmembranous structure that synthesizes proteins
The sequence of organelles and cell parts involved in milk secretion is
A. cell membrane, vesicles, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus.
B. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, vesicles, cell membrane.
C. nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear envelope, cell membrane. D. vesicles, Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion, cell membrane.
The organelle where energy is captured and stored in the chemical bonds of ATP is a A. mitochondrion.
B. ribosome.
C. peroxisome.
D. Golgi apparatus.
The main function of cristae is to A. supply enzymes for reactions. B. increase chemical transport in mitochondria.
C. facilitate diffusion of substances into the mitochondria.
D. increase the surface area for chemical reactions.
In a cell, lipids are synthesized in the A. Golgi apparatus.
B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. C. rough endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.
Cytoskeletal structures that are not found in all cell types are A. microtubules.
B. microfilaments.
C. myofibrils.
D. intermediate filaments.
DNA molecules are in the nucleus A. as free molecules.
B. complexed with protein, forming chromatin fibers.
C. complexed with protein, forming nucleoli.
D. complexed with protein on the nuclear envelope.
The nucleolus contains
A. DNA only.
B. RNA and protein.
C. DNA and protein.
D. RNA only.
The function of the nucleus is to
A. direct the activities of the cell. B. form mitochondria.
C. transfer energy.
D. provide cell shape.
Which organelle contains the nucleolus? A. The mitochondrion B. The endoplasmic reticulum
C. The Golgi apparatus
D. The nucleus
Which of the following does not influence the rate of diffusion? A. Distance
B. The concentration of the substance
C. The amount of energy available for transport molecules
D. The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules
What characteristic do simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion share?
A. Both require cellular energy for the transport of substances.
B. Both move water across a semipermeable membrane.
C. Both require a special carrier molecule to move substances across the membrane.
D.Both move a substance from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration without using cellular energy.
If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the concentration inside, A. water will enter the cell by osmosis.
B. water will leave the cell by osmosis.
C. glucose will enter the cell by osmosis.
D. glucose will leave the cell by osmosis
If a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution,
A. the cell will shrink.
B.only permeable substances will leave; but concentrations in the cell do not change.
C. the cell will remain the same size and shape.
D. the cell will swell and may eventually burst
Which of the following is isotonic to red blood cells?
A. 0.9% NaCl solution
B. Distilled water
C. 0.9% glucose solution
D. Alcohol
Cells lose water when placed in a __________ solution.
A. hypotonic
B. hypertonic
C. isotonic
D. dilute
Osmosis is the movement of A. molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration.
B. water molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.
C. water molecules from a low concentration to a high concentration through a selectively permeable membrane.
D. ions from a low pressure region to a high pressure region through a selectively permeable membrane.
The relationship of osmotic pressure and the number of solute particles in a solution is:
the lower the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.
the greater the number of solute particles, the lower the osmotic pressure.
the greater the osmotic pressure, the lower the number of solute particles.
the greater the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.
A hypertonic solution
A. has a greater concentration (number) of solute particles than do the cells in the solution.
B. would cause cells to swell when placed in the solution.
C. has a lower osmotic pressure than do the cells in the solution. D. causes water to rush inside cells.
An isotonic solution
A. has a greater concentration of solute particles than a cell.
B. has more water entering than leaving a cell.
C. has the same osmotic pressure as the cells in the solution.
D. causes a cell to shrink.
A hypotonic solution
A. has a lower concentration (number) of solute particles than do the cells in the solution.
B. would cause cells in the solution to lose water.
C. has a higher osmotic pressure than do the cells in the solution. D. causes cells to shrink
The movement of molecules through a membrane by filtration requires
A. osmotic pressure.
B. hydrostatic pressure. C. atmospheric pressure. D. barometric pressure.
Filtration is the movement of molecules through a membrane A. from low concentration to high concentration.
B. from low to high hydrostatic pressure.
C. by hydrostatic pressure that is greater on one side of the membrane than on the other. D. from low osmotic pressure to high osmotic pressure.
In phagocytosis
A. a cell membrane engulfs solid particles.
B. a particle enters a cell by moving down its concentration gradient. C. a cell membrane engulfs droplets.
D. a carrier molecule moves a substance across a cell membrane using ATP.
Molecules bind to receptor sites and are enclosed in vesicles in the process of
A. pinocytosis.
B. phagocytosis.
C. receptor-mediated endocytosis. D. exocytosis.
Which of the following transport processes does not require expenditure of cellular energy? A. Phagocytosis
B. Active transport
C. Pinocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion
Chromosomes duplicate during A. prophase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. telophase.
Stages of the cell cycle unfold in the following order: A. differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis, interphase B. interphase, differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis C. interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, differentiation
D. mitosis, interphase, cytoplasmic division, differentiation
Centromeres of replicated chromosomes separate during mitotic A. prophase.
B. metaphase.
C. anaphase.
D. telophase.
As a cell grows,
A. the relationship between its surface area and volume remains unchanged.
B. its surface area increases to a lesser degree than its volume.
C. its volume increases to a lesser degree than its surface area.
D. its requirement for nutrients increases to a lesser degree than its requirement for oxygen.
The average number of divisions that a human cell cultured in a dish can undergo is A. 10-20.
B. 30-40.
C. 40-60.
D. 60-100.
The structures in the nucleus that serve as a “mitotic clock” are A. telomeres.
B. kinases.
C. ribosomes.
D. hormones.
Cancer can result if
A. mitosis is too infrequent. B. mitosis is too frequent or does not stop.
C. the cell cycle runs backward. D. the cell cycle stops.
The two types of genes that, when abnormal, cause cancer are A. kinases and cyclins. B. oncosuppressors and tumor activators.
C. metastatic activators and apoptosis stimulators.
D. tumor suppressors and oncogenes.
The defining characteristic of a stem cell is A. self-repair.
B. self-renewal.
C. the ability to turn into a cancer cell.
D. origin from a progenitor cell.
A cell that can divide to give rise to any cell type is A. pluripotent. B. multipotent.
C. totipotent.
D. a differentiated cell.
Bone cells and muscle cells differ in structure and function because A. each expresses a different subset of genes.
B. each has different genes.
C. each has different chromosomes.
D. they express the same subset of genes
Apoptosis is also known as
A. cell specialization.
B. programmed cell death. C. mitosis.
D. cell differentiation.
During apoptosis
A. chromosomes join.
B. the cytoskeleton forms large, complex structures.
C. mitochondria merge.
D. the cell can no longer adhere to other cells
“Metabolism” refers to
A. the reactions in the body that synthesize proteins and nucleic acids.
B. the reactions in the body that break down proteins and nucleic acids.
C. all of the chemical reactions in a cell.
D. the breakdown of glucose molecules to release energy.
One reason protein synthesis is important is that
A. enzymes are proteins and enzymes are essential to metabolism.
B. proteins release energy for metabolic reactions.
C. proteins encode DNA sequences.
D. the diet does not provide the building blocks of protein.
“Anabolic metabolism” refers to
A. biochemical reactions that synthesize compounds.
B. all processes required to maintain life.
C. biochemical reactions that break down compounds.
D. biochemical reactions that release energy from nutrients.
Which of the following is an example of catabolism?
The assembly of the cell membrane from precursor molecules
The increase in muscle tissue with exercise
The formation of secretory proteins in the pancreas
The breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm and mitochondria
“Catabolism” refers to
A. chemical reactions that acquire energy
. B. chemical reactions that release energy.
C. synthesis of large molecules. D. the formation of genetic material.
An example of an anabolic reaction is A. many monosaccharides bonding, forming glycogen.
B. a dipeptide breaking down into two amino acids.
C. glycerol reacting with 3 fatty acid molecules to yield water and proteins.
D. glycogen breaking down into many monosaccharides.
In dehydration synthesis of a carbohydrate, A. larger molecules are decomposed into smaller ones. B. monosaccharides are joined. C. water molecules bond to monosaccharide molecules.
D. the molecule is decomposed into carbon dioxide and water.
When a sucrose molecule is decomposed to yield a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule, A. dehydration synthesis occurs.
B. a water molecule is released.
C. a water molecule is used. D. starch is consumed.
Dehydration synthesis reactions _____, whereas hydrolysis reactions _____.
A. lose H2O to break bonds; use H2O to form bonds
B. break large molecules into smaller ones; build large molecules from smaller ones
C. use H2O to form bonds; lose H2O to break bonds
D. lose H2O to form bonds; use H2O to break bonds
Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes?
A. They speed up the rate of chemical reactions but are not used up in the process.
B. Most are proteins.
C. They are most active at temperatures above 53 degrees C. D. They have active sites and interact with specific substrates
The enzyme catalase acts on the substrate
A. oxygen.
B. hydrogen.
C. hydrogen peroxide. D. peroxidase.
An enzyme is
A. a molecule, usually a protein, that speeds the rate of a biochemical reaction by lowering the activation energy.
B. the genetic material.
C. a protein that promotes metabolic reactions by slowing reactions that are too fast.
D. usually a vitamin.
The name of an enzyme ends in A. -ese. B. -ose. C. -gen. D. -ase.D
The basic steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are:
A. substrate and product combine, forming an S-P complex. The reaction occurs, enzymes are released, and the unchanged substrate is released and recycled.
B. substrate and enzyme combine, forming an E-S complex. The reaction occurs, products are released, and the unchanged enzyme is released and recycled. C. substrate, enzyme, and product combine, forming an S-E-P complex. The reaction occurs, enzymes are released, and the unchanged enzyme is released and recycled.
D. enzyme and product combine, forming an E-P complex. The reaction reverses, enzymes are released, and the unchanged substrate is released and recycled.
Which of the following best describes the interaction between an enzyme and its substrate? A. The enzyme surrounds and completely contains the substrate. B. The substrate surrounds and completely contains the enzyme. C. The enzyme temporarily deactivates the substrate.
D. Part of the enzyme temporarily binds part of the substrate molecule.
An active site of an enzyme is A. the part of the enzyme that binds ATP.
B. a sequence of DNA nucleotides that encodes a protein molecule. C. the part of a substrate that combines with an enzyme.
D. the part of an enzyme that combines with a substrate.
An important mechanism that controls metabolic pathways under physiological conditions is A. positive feedback.
B. signal transduction.
C. negative feedback.
D. genetic control.
Three factors that increase the rates of enzyme-controlled reactions are the
A. number of enzyme molecules, number of substrate molecules, and efficiency of the enzyme. B. temperature of the reaction, number of H2O molecules, and bond strength.
C. number of enzyme and substrate molecules formed and strength of the enzyme.
D. size of the enzyme compared to the substrate, the number of active sites, and the ratio of enzyme to substrate molecules.
A cofactor is ______ and examples are _____.
A. an inorganic molecule that all enzymes require; cholesterol and calcium
B. an inorganic molecule that some enzymes require; vitamin B12 and B6
C. a necessary part of some enzymes; copper, iron, and zinc
D. a molecule that destabilizes substrates; carbonic acid
Humans require vitamins in their diets because these nutrients A. provide energy.
B. are broken down by catabolic reactions.
C. bond with minerals.
D. act as coenzymes.
A molecule that carries energy in a form the cell can use is
A. glucose.
B. glycogen.
C. vitamin C.
ATP is important to cellular processes because it
A. is formed by muscles contracting or whenever cellular work occurs.
B. provides energy for cellular work when the terminal, high-energy bond is broken.
C. releases oxygen when high-energy phosphate bonds are broken.
D. is a by-product of all catabolic reactions.
Energy is defined as
A. something important for chemical reactions.
B. the ability to do work.
C. the heat given off from chemical reactions.
D. the heat required to start a reaction.
What is the function of ATP molecules in living cells?
A. They form a genetic material.
B. They capture energy from the oxidation of fuels in their high-energy phosphate bonds, and the energy is used in various cell processes.
C. They act as coenzymes so that fats can be synthesized.
D. They are an integral part of the cell membrane, important in transporting water molecules
Oxidation during cellular respiration differs from burning in that respiration
A. doesn’t use enzymes to lower the activation energy.
B. requires a relatively large amount of energy to start the process. C. uses enzymes to lower the activation energy.
D. releases more energy as heat and light.
The anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration take place in the A. cytoplasm.
B. mitochondria
. C. nucleus.
D. ribosomes.
Which of the following substances increases in abundance during cellular respiration?
A. Oxygen
B. Glucose
D. Glycogen
A molecule that is common to carbohydrate and lipid metabolic pathways and connects these two pathways metabolically is A. glucose.
B. pyruvic acid.
C. acetyl coenzyme A.
D. glycogen.
A glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvic acid molecules in A. glycolysis
. B. the citric acid cycle. C. gluconeogenesis.
D. the electron transport system.
In the citric acid cycle,
A. carbon dioxide is released. B. oxygen atoms are released.
C. 4 ATP molecules are formed. D. hydrocholoric acid is released.
In cellular respiration, A. mitochondria release glucose molecules.
B. energy is released from molecules and is transferred to other molecules.
C. cells breathe, or take in, O2 and give off CO2.
D. energy is absorbed from glucose and is transferred to CO2.
The anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the _____, whereas the aerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the ______.
A. mitochondria with O2 required; cytoplasm with O2 required B. cytoplasm without O2 required; cytoplasm with CO2 required C. mitochondria without O2 required; mitochondria with O2 required
D. cytoplasm without O2 required; mitochondria with O2 required
Anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration
A. break down glucose into 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
B. occur in the absence of oxygen. C. transfer energy to ATP molecules.
D. do all of the above.
A molecule that is a storage form of carbohydrate is
A. glycogen.
B. glycerol.
D. an amino acid.
hich choice lists structures in order of increasing size?
A. nitrogenous base – nucleotide – gene – chromosome – genome B. nitrogenous base – nucleotide – gene – genome – chromosome C. genome – nucleus – chromosome – nucleotide – gene D. cell – organelle – tissue – organ
Which of the following is true? A. The genome consists of entirely protein-encoding genes.
B. An amino acid encodes a gene. C. DNA has five types of nucleotide bases
. D. Much of the genome does not encode proteins.
If one strand of DNA has the sequence TCAGGCTATTCCCG, then the complementary sequence of the other strand is A. AGUCCGAUAAGGGC. B. AGTCCGATAAGGGC. C. TCAGGCTATTCCCG. D. UCAGGCUAUUCCCG.B
DNA replication occurs
A. when a cell requires energy. B. outside of the nucleus.
C. during interphase of the cell cycle.
D. during mitosis.
During DNA replication,
A. tRNAs bring specific amino acids to an mRNA molecule.
B. two single strands of DNA come together, restoring complementary base pairing.
C. amino acids are joined.
D. the DNA double helix comes apart where hydrogen bonds join base pairs, and new nucleotides are brought in, forming two double helices.
How many codons specify the twenty types of amino acids?
A. 61
B. 23
C. 46
D. 3
The genetic code is
A. the correspondence between a sequence of three DNA nucleotides and a specific amino acid.
B. the correspondence between a DNA nucleotide and an RNA nucleotide.
C. the correspondence between a gene and a genome.
D. the correspondence between a specific amino acid and a specific gene.
Which of the following is not true regarding RNA?
A. It is transcribed in the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.
B. It includes ribose, a 5-carbon sugar.
C. It is double-stranded.
D. It has cytosine as one of its four nitrogenous bases.
Which of the nitrogenous bases is part of DNA but not RNA?
A. Uracil
B. Thymine
C. Guanine
D. Cytosine
Which of the nitrogenous bases is part of RNA but not DNA? A. Cytosine
B. Thymine
C. Guanine
D. Uracil
A part of a gene that is a DNA sequence 333 nucleotides long encodes ___ amino acids.
A. 333
B. 111
C. 999
D. 444
The codon that will signal where to begin making a polypeptide is ___________.
Copying DNA information into an mRNA molecule is called A. translation.
B. synthesis.
C. replication.
D. transcription
Transcription and translation differ in that
A. transcription produces DNA and translation produces RNA. B. transcription produces RNA and translation produces DNA. C. transcription produces protein and translation produces RNA. D. transcription produces RNA and translation produces protein.
A peptide bond forms between A. a tRNA and an mRNA.
B. adjacent amino acids.
C. an mRNA and an rRNA.
D. a gene and a protein.
Which DNA sequence can encode the amino acid sequence ile-asp-ser-cys-his-tyr? A. TAGCTGTCAACAGTGATA B. TAACTGTCGACGGTGATG C. TAACTAAGTACGGTGATG D. All of the answer choices are correctC
A chaperone protein
A. brings amino acids to the appropriate tRNAs.
B. brings a tRNA to the appropriate codon on mRNA.
C. helps a protein to fold.
D. attracts ATP.
Codons are part of
B. tRNA.
C. rRNA.
D proteins.
Synthesis of a protein stops when A. any of three specific anticodons are encountered in the mRNA. B. there is no more DNA.
C. any of three “stop” codons are encountered in the mRNA.
D. the ribosome becomes fatigued
A DNA sequence AACGGTGCACCACGG encodes a portion of a protein of sequence A. ile-gly-ala-pro-arg
. B. leu-pro-arg-gly-ala.
C. ala-gly-arg-pro-leu.
D. arg-pro-ala-gly-ile.
The genome sequences of different individuals are
A. always identical.
B. always different.
C. about 90% alike.
D. about 99.9% alike.
A mutation is
A. a change in a DNA sequence in less than 1% of a population that affects anatomy and/or physiology. B. a common genetic variant. C. always beneficial to health. D. always harmful to health.
A mutation can cause disease if A. the DNA sequence does not change.
B. the DNA sequence changes so that one amino acid is substituted for another in a way that affects the encoded protein’s functioning. C. the DNA sequence changes so that one amino acid is substituted for another in a way that does not alter the encoded protein’s functioning.
D. it attracts mutagens.
Three types of genetic changes are A. replication, transcription, and translation.
B. A to C, G to C, and U to A. C. mutations, SNPs, and changes in copy number.
D. adenine, guanine, and cytosine.
In the DNA damage response,
A. repair enzymes replace mismatched nucleotides in DNA. B. repair enzymes replace mismatched nucleotides in RNA. C. repair enzymes replace mismatched amino acids in protein. D. more than one codon encodes one type of amino acid.
Arsenic poisoning harms the body by
A. unraveling the DNA double helix.
B. interfering with cellular extraction of energy from glucose. C. forming more sulfur bonds in proteins.
D. rotting the teeth.
A. are 21 or 22 bases long.
B. control gene expression.
C. are noncoding RNAs.
D. are all of the above.
The metabolome includes
A. all of the genes that encode protein in the genome
B. the DNA that does not encode protein in the genome.
C. all of the small molecules that are part of metabolism.
D. all of the enzymes that take part in aerobic respiration.